QUOTE(Mr. Mystery @ Mon 13th December 2010, 4:46pm)
Seems he is inclined towards unprotected sex:
http://www.okcupid.com/profile/HarryHarrisonThis just in from today. Such sweetly crafted justice for a Wikileaker:
QUOTE
LONDON — Julian Assange, the founder of the WikiLeaks anti-secrecy organization who was released from a British jail late last week, is facing a new challenge: the leak of a 68-page confidential Swedish police report that sheds new light on the allegations of sexual misconduct that led to Mr. Assange’s legal troubles.
Leaving aside the fact that Mr. Assange's personal habits and court cases are going to be all over the web, what do we think about this?
Suppose a man and woman agree to have sex, and the woman's demand is that the man wear a condom. And let us suppose he agrees, then later in the night tricks the woman into sex in which he isn't using one.
Now-- what should be the penalty. Stipulate no harm but psychological done-- the woman does not get pregnant nor catch a disease. Is this, or should this be, a felony?
Turn it around. A man and woman agree to have sex, and the man's demand is that the woman should be taking birth control pills. She promises that she is, but and lies. She does get pregnant. She also says she's never been treated for an STD, but has, and in this case gives the man a rather nasty one, albeit not a fatal or incurable one.
This has happened a number of times, and courts have decided that the man in such situations is basically out of luck. He has to pay child support if the mother decides to have the child. His STD is his own problem, unless possibly it's Hep C, herpes II, or HIV, in which last case he can sue for willful endangerment (in some places).
Now, isn't all this rather a double standard? How much should people who make passionate promises be held to keeping them? Always? As a civil matter? As a criminal matter? Only if physical harm is done? Only if the "victim" is female?